My question is how were the polls weightings adjusted following the 2016 election turn out? The problem with polls is that they are weighted based on expected assumptions, but those assumptions allow for individual biases to show up. Does the pollster think that the 'enthusiasm' boost leans to the dems and thus oversamples registered Dems? Does it assume that only 13% of African Americans will vote for Trump when in reality in might be 20%? Or did they adjust wildly and over-correct the white, male vote to have a higher sampling towards the republicans and that the polls are actually capturing what was a blind spot in 2016? Most polls will tell you what their methodology is (although most don't look any deeper than # sampled, sampling method, and estimated accuracy). But in reality, just because you know the poll estimates 24%of the vote will be done by minorities, this is just a SWAG, and higher (or lower) turnout of that group significantly impacts their accuracy.
